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DGCA Papers 3

How should you determine the amount of oxygen in a portable, high pressure cylinder?
A) Weigh the cylinder and its contents.
B) Read the pressure gauge mounted on the cylinder.
C) Measure the pressure at the mask.

1





Before a high pressure oxygen cylinder is serviced, it must be the correct type and have been
A) hydrostatically tested within the proper time interval.
B) approved by the National Transportation Safety Board.
C) inspected by a certificated airframe mechanic.

2





The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen and other types of commercially available compressed oxygen is that
A) the other types are usually somewhat less than 99.5 percent pure oxygen.
B) aviation breathing oxygen has had all the water vapor removed.
C) aviation breathing oxygen has a higher percentage of water vapor to help prevent drying of a person's breathing passages and possible dehydration.

3





The purpose of the airflow metering aneroid assembly found in oxygen diluter demand regulators is to
A) regulate airflow in relation to oxygen flow when operating in emergency or diluter demand positions.
B) regulate airflow in relation to cabin altitude when in diluter demand position.
C) automatically put the regulator in emergency position if the demand valve diaphragm ruptures.

4





What is used in some oxygen systems to change high cylinder pressure to low system pressure?
A) Pressure reducer valve.
B) Calibrated fixed orifice.
C) Diluter demand regulator.

5





(1) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5 percent pure and is practically water free.
(Q) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5 percent pure and is hospital quality.
Regarding the above statements,
A) only No. 1 is true.
B) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.
C) neither No. 1 nor No. Q is true.

6





The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to
(1) create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia.
(Q) permit operation at high altitudes.
Regarding the above statements,
A) only No. 1 is true.
B) only No. Q is true.
C) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.

7





In a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the fuselage skin?
A) Pressure relief valves.
B) Filler shutoff valves.
C) Pressure reducer valves.

8





(Refer to Airframe figure 14.) One hour after an oxygen system was charged for a leakage check, the oxygen pressure gauge read 460 PSI at 63 °F; 6 hours later the temperature was 51 °F. (A 5 PSI change is the maximum allowable in a 6-hour period.) What pressure gauge readings would be acceptable to remain within the allowable limits?
A) 455 to 460 PSI.
B) 446 to 450 PSI.
C) 445 to 450 PSI.

9





High pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their
A) green color and the words 'BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
B) yellow color and the words 'AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
C) green color and the words 'AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN' stenciled in 1-inch white letters.

10.





A contaminated oxygen system is normally purged with
A) oxygen.
B) compressed air.
C) nitrogen.

11





If a high pressure oxygen cylinder is to be installed in an airplane, it must meet the specifications of the
A) aircraft manufacturer or the cylinder manufacturer.
B) Department of Transportation.
C) National Transportation Safety Board or the Standards of Compressed Gas Cylinders.

12





The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system absorbs heat and changes from a liquid to a gas is the
A) condenser.
B) evaporator.
C) expansion valve.

13





If the liquid level gauge in a vapor cycle cooling system indicates a low freon charge, the system should
A) be operated and a pressure check performed.
B) be operated for a period of time to reach a stable condition and then the freon level rechecked.
C) not be operated until freon and oil have been added.

14
M01A
AMA



What component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than airplane altitude?
A) Cabin rate of descent control.
B) Negative pressure relief valve.
C) Positive pressure relief valve.

15.





The function of the evaporator in a freon cooling system is to
A) liquefy freon in the line between the compressor and the condenser.
B) lower the temperature of the cabin air.
C) transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.

16





The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the
A) outflow valve opening.
B) pneumatic system pressure.
C) inflow valve opening.

17





On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the
A) cabin pressure regulator.
B) negative pressure-relief valve.
C) main landing gear operated switch.

18





If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the
A) outflow valve to close slower.
B) outflow valve to close faster.
C) cabin compressor speed to decrease.

20





How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?
A) By a pressure sensitive switch that causes the pressurization pump to turn on or off as required.
B) By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set.
C) By a pressure sensitive valve that controls the output pressure of the pressurization pump.

21





The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system gives up heat and changes from a gas to a liquid is the
A) condenser.
B) evaporator.
C) expansion valve.

22





Where does the last stage of cooling in an air cycle air conditioning system occur?
A) Refrigeration unit compressor.
B) Secondary heat exchanger.
C) Expansion turbine.

23





The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen systems is
A) moisture.
B) dust and other airborne particulates.
C) other atmospheric gases.

24





For use in pressurized aircraft, which is generally the least complicated and requires the least maintenance?
A) Chemical oxygen generator systems.
B) High-pressure oxygen systems.
C) Low-pressure oxygen systems.

25





The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the
A) safety and outflow valves.
B) safety valve.
C) outflow valve.

26





What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a vapor cycle cooling system?
A) High pressure liquid.
B) Low pressure liquid.
C) High pressure vapor.

27





What may be used as a lubricant on oxygen system tapered pipe thread connections?
A) Silicone dielectric compound.
B) Glycerine.
C) Teflon tape.

28





Which is considered a good practice concerning the inspection of heating and exhaust systems of aircraft utilizing a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source?
A) Supplement physical inspections with periodic operational carbon monoxide detection tests.
B) All exhaust system components should be removed periodically, and their condition determined by the magnetic particle inspection method.
C) All exhaust system components should be removed and replaced at each 100-hour inspection period.

29





When checking a freon system, a steady stream of bubbles in the sight gauge indicates the charge is
A) high.
B) correct.
C) low.

30





What type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag-type mask?
A) Diluter demand.
B) Continuous flow.
C) Demand.

31





What unit in a vapor cycle cooling system serves as a reservoir for the refrigerant?
A) Receiver dryer.
B) Evaporator.
C) Condenser.

32.





A pressurization controller uses
A) bleed air pressure, outside air temperature, and cabin rate of climb.
B) barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change.
C) cabin rate of climb, bleed air volume, and cabin pressure.

33.





The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor cycle cooling system is determined by temperature and pressure of the
A) freon entering the evaporator.
B) air in the outlet of the condenser.
C) freon in the outlet of the evaporator.

34.





Which best describes cabin differential pressure?
A) Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure.
B) Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure.
C) Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure.

35.





(1) Usually bleed air from a gas-turbine engine compressor can be safely used for cabin pressurization.
(Q) Independent cabin condition air machines (air cycle machine) can be powered by bleed air from an aircraft turbine engine compressor.
Regarding the above statements,
A) only No. 1 is true.
B) only No. Q is true.
C) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.

36.





(Refer to Airframe figure 13.) Determine what unit is located immediately downstream of the expansion valve in a freon refrigeration system.
A) Condenser.
B) Compressor.
C) Evaporator coils.

37.





The air cycle cooling system produces cold air by
A) extracting heat energy across a compressor.
B) passing air through cooling coils that contain a refrigerant.
C) extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.

38.





The operation of an aircraft combustion heater is usually controlled by a thermostat circuit which
A) alternately turns the fuel on and off, a process known as cycling.
B) meters the amount of fuel continuously entering the heater and therefore regulates the heater's BTU output.
C) regulates the voltage applied to the heater's ignition transformer.

39.





After cleaning or replacing the filtering element in a combustion heater fuel system, the system should be pressurized and
A) all connections checked for leaks.
B) the fuel filter bypass valve reset to the filter position.
C) a sample of fuel taken downstream from the filter to ensure proper operation of the new filtering element.

40.





One purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air conditioning system is to
A) produce a high pressure for operation of the outflow valve.
B) provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of the aircraft.
C) assist in the circulation of freon.

41.





The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to
A) provide protection against overpressurization.
B) maintain the desired cabin pressure.
C) maintain the same cabin air pressure at all altitudes.

42.





When servicing an air conditioning system that has lost all of its freon, it is necessary to
A) check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, relieve vacuum, and add freon.
B) check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, and add freon.
C) check oil and add as necessary, and add freon.

43.





Which prevents a sudden loss of pressurization in the event that there is a loss of the pressurization source?
A) Firewall shutoff valve.
B) Cabin pressure outflow valve.
C) Delivery air duct check valve.

44.





The function of an expansion valve in a freon cooling system is to act as a metering device and to
A) reduce the pressure of the gaseous freon.
B) increase the pressure of the liquid freon.
C) reduce the pressure of the liquid freon.

45.





The function of the condenser in a freon cooling system is to
A) transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
B) change liquid freon into a gas before it enters the compressor.
C) transfer heat from the cabin air to the liquid freon.

46.





The cabin pressurization modes of operation are
A) isobaric, differential, and maximum differential.
B) differential, unpressurized, and isobaric.
C) ambient, unpressurized, and isobaric.

47





Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by
A) closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off the fuel dump switch(es).
B) dump limit valves or a low level circuit.
C) standpipes in the fuel tanks.

48





Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by
A) boost pumps.
B) gravity.
C) gravity and engine driven fuel pumps.

48.





A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel jettisoning?
A) Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.
B) Federal Aviation Regulation Part Q3, Q5 and CAM 4b.
C) Federal Aviation Regulation Part Q1, 43 and CAM 8.

49.





Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?
A) Two separate independent systems.
B) Crossfeed system.
C) Two interconnected systems.

50.





(1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight personnel to close the valve during any part of the jettisoning operation.
(Q) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
Regarding the above statements,
A) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.
B) only No. Q is true.
C) neither No. 1 nor No. Q is true.

51.





The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a
A) lower landing weight.
B) balanced fuel load.
C) reduced fire hazard.

52





Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method, what important precaution should be observed?
A) The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.
B) The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for minimum filter pressure.
C) The aircraft's electrical system must be on to indicate quantity gauge readings.

53.





How does temperature affect fuel weight?
A) Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.
B) Warm fuel is heavier per gallon.
C) Temperature has no effect.

54.





What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
1. Sight glass.
Q. Mechanical.
3. Electrical.
4. Electronic.
5. Bourdon tube.
6. Vane type transmitter.
7. Litmus indicator.
8. Direct reading static pressure type.
A) 1, Q, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3, 6, 8.
C) Q, 3, 5, 7.

55.





A capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system measures fuel in
A) pounds.
B) pounds per hour.
C) gallons.

56.





What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system?
A) Outer shell of the capacitor.
B) Fuel in the tank.
C) Fuel and air in the tank.

57.





One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that
A) the indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no conversion is necessary.
B) only one transmitter and one indicator are needed regardless of the number of tanks.
C) several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.

58.





Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical type?
A) Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for multiple tank configurations.
B) It measures in gallons and converts to pounds.
C) It measures by weight instead of volume.

59.





A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?
A) Selsyn.
B) Capacitor.
C) Synchro.

60.





The electronic type fuel quantity indicating system consists of a bridge circuit,
A) an amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.
B) a tank, an amplifier, and an indicator.
C) a tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier.

61.





A drip gauge may be used to measure
A) the amount of fuel in the tank.
B) system leakage with the system shut down.
C) fuel pump diaphragm leakage.

62.





An aircraft's integral fuel tank is
A) usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
B) a part of the aircraft structure.
C) a self sealing tank.

63.





What type of remote reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
A) Electromechanical.
B) Electronic.
C) Direct reading.

64.





Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished
A) through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
B) by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing.
C) through individual outlets for each tank.

65.





The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is essentially a
A) float actuated variable capacitor.
B) capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
C) capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.

66.





Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?
A) Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
B) Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended.
C) Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels.

67.





What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?
A) Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
B) Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks.
C) Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve.

68.





What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank after welded repairs?
A) Soft brush and warm water.
B) 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
C) Mild solution of soap and warm water.

69.





What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?
A) COQ.
B) Water.
C) Steam.

70.





The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate
A) too much fuel pressure.
B) excessive airflow across the venturi.
C) clogged fuel nozzle.

71.





When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should
A) slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
B) slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
C) remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly.

72.





The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to
A) equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
B) vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
C) compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.

73.





Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system incorporates a signal amplifier?
A) Electronic.
B) Sight glass.
C) Electrical.


74..How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?
A) Read it directly from the main system pressure gauge with all actuators inoperative.
B) Build up system pressure with the emergency pump and then read the pressure on a gauge attached to the air side of the accumulator.
C) Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero.

.





75..To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
A) reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air gauge.
B) observe the first reading on the hydraulic system gauge while operating a component in the system.
C) read it directly from the auxiliary pressure gauge.

.





75..Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the
A) emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted.
B) emergency pump at any time it is required.
C) normal system power pump.

.





76..What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?
A) Prevent tank collapse at altitude.
B) Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
C) Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.

78...





Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
A) excessive system pressure.
B) insufficient system pressure.
C) air in the system.

79...





Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally
A) cleaned and reused.
B) discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.
C) not approved for use in certificated aircraft.

.





80..Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions?
1. Dampen pressure surges.
Q. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump's capacity.
3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating.
4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.
A) Q, 3.
B) 1, Q, 3, 4.
C) 1, Q, 3.

.





81..Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication
A) of low accumulator preload.
B) that the main system relief valve is sticking open.
C) that air is entering the pump.

397.





82..Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of
A) easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common.
B) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering the system.
C) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.

.





83..Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?
A) Silicone rubber.
B) Butyl rubber.
C) Neoprene rubber.

399.





84..A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
A) produces an unregulated constant pressure.
B) produces a continuous positive pressure.
C) delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.

.





85..The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to
A) control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms.
B) allow the flow of fluid in one direction only.
C) lower the operating pressure of selected components.

.





86..A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is
A) cold fluid.
B) restricted orifices.
C) internal leakage in the actuating unit.

.





87..A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a
A) leaking selector valve.
B) low accumulator fluid preload.
C) leaking accumulator air valve.

.





88..If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what will result?
A) Fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir when the filler neck cap is removed.
B) The fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced.
C) Air will be drawn into the system, when the filler neck cap is removed.

.





89..In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir?
A) Relief valve.
B) Air bleed relief valve.
C) Air pressure regulator.

.





90..In a typical high pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
A) saturated chemical dryer.
B) malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
C) malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.

.
L03A
AMA



91..Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure or temperature should
A) not be straightened or bent further.
B) not be reinstalled once removed.
C) be immediately replaced.

.





92..A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected by
A) hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line.
B) evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the engine oil.
C) the presence of hydraulic fluid around the pump mounting pad.

.





93..A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to
A) linear motion.
B) rotary motion.
C) angular motion.






94..What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?
A) Pressure test with manometer.
B) Pressure test with nitrogen.
C) Pressure test with water.

.





95..The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve
A) all positive pressure from the cabin.
B) a negative pressure differential.
C) pressure in excess of the maximum differential.

.





96..What component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of a vapor cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperature is too low?
A) Compressor.
B) Condenser.
C) Evaporator.

.





97..How can it be determined that a vapor cycle cooling system is charged with the proper amount of freon?
A) Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.
B) The compressor loads up and RPM decreases.
C) Air bubbles appear in the sight glass.

.





98..When charging a vapor cycle cooling system after evacuation, the low pressure gauge fails to come out of a vacuum. What is indicated?
A) Blockage in the system.
B) The expansion valve failed to close.
C) The compressor is not engaging.

.





99..The basic air cycle cooling system consists of
A) a source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.
B) heaters, coolers, and compressors.
C) ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds.

.





100..Frost or ice buildup on a vapor cycle cooling system evaporator would most likely be caused by
A) the mixing valve sticking closed.
B) moisture in the evaporator.
C) inadequate airflow through the evaporator.





·         If the C of G of a helicopter is on the aft limit.
·         Control range of moment will be reduced.
·         Control auth. In forward level flight will be reduced.
·         Control auth. In forward flight will be incrased.
·          All
2. The Cof G is considered to be .
·         An enssential factor only hen loading
·         A variable point with in set limits
·         Before every flight
·         All
3.What is the Cof G datum.
·         It is the distance the Cof G may move without seriously disturbing the stability of the a/c.
·         It is the distance the Cof G may not move without seriously disturbing the stability of the a/c.
·         Both A and B
·         All
4. A H/C CofG position should be check .
·         Every 28 Days
·         Before Every flight
·         Before flight & Prior to landing
·         All
5.Pendolous suspension is employed in a direct reading compass to..
a)damp out oscillations
b)improve horizontalily
c)reduce accelerating errors
6.the primary purpose of the housing the magnet system of a direct reaing compass in the fluid is to
a)improve stability
b)reduce friction at the pivot points
c)reduce friction
7.To which of the following errors may a  sensitive altimeter be subjected..
a)position ,temprature,barometric and timelagb)time lag ,density,pressure,and arometric
c)all the above
d)only a is correct
8.why are many helicopters instruments systems fitted with duplicated static vents ,usually one on each side of the fuslage…
a)reduce errors as a result f the helicopter  manoeuvers
 b)reduce position errors.
c)reduce friction errors.
9.If a h/c is desending though 7500ft and the static line becomes blocked as are a result the altimeter the altimeter will…
a)under read true altitude 
b)over read
c)indicate 7500ft
d)indicate zeroo

10.IF a pilot tube becomes block during a deent what will b the resulting effect on the airspeed indicator…
a)overread
b)undreread
c)zero read
d)indicate constant speed
11.During a h/c decent  , the pilot tube becomes blocked .what will be the effect on the vertical speed indicator ?to indicate
a)a  constant vertical speed
b)underread
c)no error

12.Activation of an engine bay fire extinguisher will cause
a)a pin to extend at  the base of fire extinguisher.
b)a pin to extend at the top af the fire. 
c)a red pin extend on the fire extinguisher.
13.the extinguishant most commonly used in the engine bay fire extinguisher is
a)FREON
b)co2
c)foam
14.TYPE 2 AEA fluid is used for
a)deicing hot
b)deicing cold
c)anti icing and deicing hot
d)all

16.





(1) Materials which are Skydrol compatible or resistant include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane and epoxy paints.
(Q) Skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and natural fibers.






Regarding the above statements,
A) neither No. 1 nor No. Q is true.
B) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.
C) only No. 1 is true.

17.





Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to contamination from
A) teflon seal material.
B) water in the atmosphere.
C) ethylene propylene elastomers.

18.





How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an airplane be determined?
A) Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
B) Consult the aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet.
C) Consult the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.

19.





Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic fluid may be cleaned with
A) Carbon tetrachloride.
B) Naphtha.
C) Stoddard solvent.

20.





What is used to flush a system normally serviced with MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid?
A) Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene.
B) Naphtha or varsol.
C) Lacquer thinner or trichlorethylene.

21.





Characteristics of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are
A) red color, petroleum base, will burn, synthetic rubber seals.
B) light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
C) blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural rubber seals.

22.





Where can information be obtained about the compatibility of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft materials?
A) Manufacturer's technical bulletins.
B) Aircraft manufacturer's specifications.
C) AC 43.13-1A.

23.





Characteristics of MIL-H-8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B) hydraulic fluid are
A) blue color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
B) light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
C) light green color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

24.





What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
A) The increase in volume of a fluid due to temperature change.
B) The fluid's ability to resist oxidation and deterioration for long periods.
C) The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing.

25.





(Refer to Airframe figure 1Q.) Which illustration(s) show(s) the correct spiral for teflon backup rings?
A) 1 and Q.
B) 3.
C) 1 and 3.

26.





If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is used, what will be the effect on the system?
A) No effect.
B) System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, and the seals will fail.
C) System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, but there will be no seal problem.

27.





The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called
A) volatility.
B) viscosity.
C) acidity.

28.





Which is a characteristic of petroleum base hydraulic fluid?
A) Flammable under normal conditions.
B) Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings.
C) Nonflammable under all conditions.

29.





(1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer's maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir or unit.
(Q) Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid.
Regarding the above statements,
A) only No. 1 is true.
B) only No. Q is true.
C) both No. 1 and No. Q are true.

30.





Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
A) Purple.
B) Blue.
C) Red.

31.





Which of the following is adversely affected by atmospheric humidity if left unprotected?
1. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
Q. Skydrol hydraulic fluid.
3. None of the above.
A) 1 and Q.
B) 3.
C) Q.

34.





Which statement about fluids is correct?
A) Any fluid will completely fill its container.
B) All fluids are considered to be highly compressible.
C) All fluids readily transmit pressure.







35..Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure regulator?
A) Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.
B) Adjust all other system relief valves which have a lower pressure setting.
C) Manually unseat all system check valves to allow unrestricted flow in both directions.

.





36..Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid is retained to
A) prime the main system.
B) supply fluid to the auxiliary pump.
C) supply fluid to the pressure accumulator.







37..The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is called a
A) selector valve.
B) sequence valve.
C) shuttle valve.







38..The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to
A) prevent the system pressure from rising above a predetermined amount due to thermal expansion.
B) boost the pressure in portions of the system.
C) relieve the pump of its load when no actuating units are being operated.







39..Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which of the following?
A) The hand pump inport check valve is sticking open.
B) The main system relief valve is set too high.
C) The hand pump outport check valve is sticking open.

.





40..What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction?
A) Check valve.
B) Orifice restrictor.
C) Orifice check valve.

41) what is the amount of carbon added to iron so that the
product will become vastly superior to iron alone
a) Carbon is added approx 1%
42) Spark test is common for
a) Ferrous metal
b) Non ferrous metal



43) In five numeral designation of alloy steels according to sae
the 1st 2 digits indicates
a) Type of steel
b)alloying element
44) Aluminum alloy is used vastly in a/c due to
a) High strength to weight ratio
b) Ease of fabrication
c) Non magnetic and an excellent conductor
d) AOTA

45) In 3xxx th 1st number “3” shows which material
a) Manganese
46) Mark the correct statement for titanium alloys
a) used for compressor disks and space rings compressor blades
b) Fuselage skins, engine shrouds, firewall, longerons, frames
c) turbine housing liners and air ducts
d)AOTA
47) For aluminum alloys the heat treatments given are
a) SHT
b) PHT
c) annealing
d) AOTA
48) Hardness testing – mark the correct statement
a) Hardness testing is a method of determining the results of heat treatment.

49) Testing of copper, aluminum alloys are carried out by
a) Barcol tester
50) The property of a conductor of electricity that limits or
restricts the flow of electric current
a) Resistance
51) Which of the following resistor control relatively low current
a) carbon resistor
52) two resistor r1= 5 ohm. R2= 10ohm are series and a volt of
30 used the current is
a)2A
b)1A
c)3A
53) Which of the following is used as a switch?
a) transistor
54) In large a/c electricity can be get from
a)batteries only
b) Generators and APU
55) Purpose of commutator in a generator
a) Converts ac to dc
56) Pulse echo in UT can detect
a) Weld flaws


57) In eddy current method
a) metals can be detected
b) Non metals can be detected
c) Both
58) While storing the a/c in hanger
a) Fuel tanks should be filled
59) Portable hydraulic test unit can perform
a) Drain the a/c hydraulic system
b) Filter the a/c system hydraulic fluid
c) Can be used to perform all the system tests that fixed
shop[ test stands are designed to perform
d)AOTA




60)fires inflammable petroleum products or other flammables or
combustibles liquids is classified as
a) Class b fires
61)to secure large a/c the tie down is down by using
a)cables
62.





An aircraft's integral fuel tank is
A) usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
B) a part of the aircraft structure.
C) a self sealing tank.

63.





What type of remote reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
A) Electromechanical.
B) Electronic.
C) Direct reading.

64.





Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished
A) through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
B) by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing.
C) through individual outlets for each tank.

65.





The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is essentially a
A) float actuated variable capacitor.
B) capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
C) capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.

66.





Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?
A) Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
B) Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended.
C) Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels.

67.





What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?
A) Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
B) Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks.
C) Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve.

68.





What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank after welded repairs?
A) Soft brush and warm water.
B) 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
C) Mild solution of soap and warm water.

69.





What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?
A) COQ.
B) Water.
C) Steam.

70.





The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate
A) too much fuel pressure.
B) excessive airflow across the venturi.
C) clogged fuel nozzle.

71.





When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should
A) slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
B) slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
C) remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly.

72.





The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to
A) equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
B) vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
C) compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.

73.





Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system incorporates a signal amplifier?
A) Electronic.
B) Sight glass.
C) Electrical.


74..How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?
A) Read it directly from the main system pressure gauge with all actuators inoperative.
B) Build up system pressure with the emergency pump and then read the pressure on a gauge attached to the air side of the accumulator.
C) Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero.

.





75..To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
A) reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air gauge.
B) observe the first reading on the hydraulic system gauge while operating a component in the system.
C) read it directly from the auxiliary pressure gauge.

.





75..Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the
A) emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted.
B) emergency pump at any time it is required.
C) normal system power pump.

.





76..What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?
A) Prevent tank collapse at altitude.
B) Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
C) Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.

78...





Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
A) excessive system pressure.
B) insufficient system pressure.
C) air in the system.

79...





Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally
A) cleaned and reused.
B) discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.
C) not approved for use in certificated aircraft.

.





80..Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions?
1. Dampen pressure surges.
Q. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump's capacity.
3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating.
4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.
A) Q, 3.
B) 1, Q, 3, 4.
C) 1, Q, 3.

.





81..Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication
A) of low accumulator preload.
B) that the main system relief valve is sticking open.
C) that air is entering the pump.

397.





82..Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of
A) easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common.
B) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering the system.
C) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.

.





83..Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?
A) Silicone rubber.
B) Butyl rubber.
C) Neoprene rubber.

399.





84..A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
A) produces an unregulated constant pressure.
B) produces a continuous positive pressure.
C) delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.

.





85..The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to
A) control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms.
B) allow the flow of fluid in one direction only.
C) lower the operating pressure of selected components.

.





86..A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is
A) cold fluid.
B) restricted orifices.
C) internal leakage in the actuating unit.

.





87..A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a
A) leaking selector valve.
B) low accumulator fluid preload.
C) leaking accumulator air valve.

.





88..If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what will result?
A) Fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir when the filler neck cap is removed.
B) The fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced.
C) Air will be drawn into the system, when the filler neck cap is removed.

.





89..In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir?
A) Relief valve.
B) Air bleed relief valve.
C) Air pressure regulator.

.





90..In a typical high pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
A) saturated chemical dryer.
B) malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
C) malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
90..The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with
A) a straight tube to withstand the shocks and vibration to which it will be subjected.
B) a straight tube to permit proper alignment of the fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through leakage.
C) enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration.







92..If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
A) is acceptable.
B) may distort the flare.
C) may distort the cone.







93..Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?
1. Minimum maintenance requirements.
Q. Lightweight.
3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (Q0 percent loss due to fluid friction).
4. Simple to inspect.
A) 1, Q, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.







94..A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a
A) compound.
B) packing.
C) gasket.







95..The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to
A) maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload the pump.
B) regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating cylinders within the system.
C) prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressure.







96..What is the purpose of using backup rings with O rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500 PSI?
A) Prevent internal and external leakage of all moving parts within a hydraulic system.
-B) Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which move in relation to each other.
C) Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and stationary part.







97..What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for 98..simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
A) Four port, closed center valve.
B) Three port, four way valve.
C) Two port, open center valve.







99..Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to
A) relieve system pressure.
B) discharge the preload.
C) drain the reservoir.







100..Pneumatic systems utilize
A) return lines.
B) relief valves.