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DGCA Papers

If the C of G of a helicopter is on the aft limit.
·         Control range of moment will be reduced.
·         Control auth. In forward level flight will be reduced.
·         Control auth. In forward flight will be incrased.
·          All
2. The Cof G is considered to be .
·         An enssential factor only hen loading
·         A variable point with in set limits
·         Before every flight
·         All
3.What is the Cof G datum.
·         It is the distance the Cof G may move without seriously disturbing the stability of the a/c.
·         It is the distance the Cof G may not move without seriously disturbing the stability of the a/c.
·         Both A and B
·         All
4. A H/C CofG position should be check .
·         Every 28 Days
·         Before Every flight
·         Before flight & Prior to landing
·         All
5.Pendolous suspension is employed in a direct reading compass to..
a)damp out oscillations
b)improve horizontalily
c)reduce accelerating errors
6.the primary purpose of the housing the magnet system of a direct reaing compass in the fluid is to
a)improve stability
b)reduce friction at the pivot points
c)reduce friction
7.To which of the following errors may a  sensitive altimeter be subjected..
a)position ,temprature,barometric and timelagb)time lag ,density,pressure,and arometric
c)all the above
d)only a is correct
8.why are many helicopters instruments systems fitted with duplicated static vents ,usually one on each side of the fuslage…
a)reduce errors as a result f the helicopter  manoeuvers
 b)reduce position errors.
c)reduce friction errors.
9.If a h/c is desending though 7500ft and the static line becomes blocked as are a result the altimeter the altimeter will…
a)under read true altitude 
b)over read
c)indicate 7500ft
d)indicate zeroo

10.IF a pilot tube becomes block during a deent what will b the resulting effect on the airspeed indicator…
c)zero read
d)indicate constant speed
11.During a h/c decent  , the pilot tube becomes blocked .what will be the effect on the vertical speed indicator ?to indicate
a)a  constant vertical speed
c)no error

12.Activation of an engine bay fire extinguisher will cause
a)a pin to extend at  the base of fire extinguisher.
b)a pin to extend at the top af the fire. 
c)a red pin extend on the fire extinguisher.
13.the extinguishant most commonly used in the engine bay fire extinguisher is
14.TYPE 2 AEA fluid is used for
a)deicing hot
b)deicing cold
c)anti icing and deicing hot
15.Under which of the following weather conditions would type 2 AEA fluid give the longest holdover time...
b)rain on a cold  soaked wing .
c)freezing snow
d)frezing fog
16.FIRE detection systm are of..
a) a capacitive or a resistive type
b)a capacitive type
c)a gasactivated type
17.FOR hydaulic fluids...
a)they are virtually incompressible,
b)they are mineral based.
c)they are mixer of waiste oil.
18.TRANSFER OF FUIL FROM ONE TANK ANOTHER is to acheived by with the use of ....
a)manually operated pumps
b)mechanicaly operaed booster pumps
c)electrically operated booster pump.
d)gravity pumps.
19.A Fire warning light when indicating a fire will show...
a)it is cancelled
b)the alarm is cancelled
c)the temprature drops below a set value.
20.A FIRE warning light when indicating a fire will show...
a) a steady red light
b)a flashing light.
c)a flashing amber light
21.FUEL tanker marking for AVGAS 100LL are the letters avgas in ........on a..........background with a ............colour code.
a)white ,red ,blue
b)pink ,blue,red
c)red ,green ,blue
22.AVTUR JET A-1 markings on a tanker are...
a)avtur in white on black background.
b)avtur in red on a white background.
c)avtur in pink on a red background.
23.WHICH OF the following hand held portable fire extinguishers are suitable for fuel fires...
a) BCF
24.ENGINE bay fixed fire extnguisher are activated...
a)by a electrical supply of 28v DC.
b)by a electrical supply of 24v DC.
c)by a electrical supply of 14v DC.
25.WHEN fuelling a h/c ,which of the following actions must be complicated before fuel is transfered..
a)all fuel vents must be closed.
b)the fuel hose must be bonded to the aircraft structure before tank caps are removed.
c)the hose must be bonded to the nose undercarriage.

26.Aircraft tire pressure should be checked
A) using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-pound increments.
B) at least once a week or more often.
C) as soon as possible after each flight.

27. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies intersects aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having
A) toe out.
B) toe in.
C) negative camber.

28.What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?
A) Air pressure.
B) Packing seals for correct installation.
C) Fluid level.

29.What is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake system?
A) Assists in the master cylinder piston return.
B) Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir.
C) Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature changes.

30.Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the
A) brake linings.
B) wheel hub.
C) wheel flange.*

31. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is
A) low fluid.
B) low air charge.
C) a restricted metering pin orifice.

32. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?
A) Provides an internal shimmy damper.
B) Straightens the nosewheel.
C) Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation.

33. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the
A) amount of oil in the strut.
B) physical condition of the strut itself.
C) proper operating position of the strut.

34. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to
A) reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure.
B) relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive release.
C) reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.

35. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the
A) strut should be disassembled and the metering pin orifice plate replaced.
B) air pressure should be increased.
C) strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected.

36. The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to
A) reduce pressure for brake application.
B) prevent the tire from skidding.
C) compensate for thermal expansion.

37. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single disk brakes has excessive brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is
A) the master cylinder one way cup is leaking.
B) worn brake linings.
C) worn brake disk causing excessive clearance between the notches on the perimeter of the disk and the splines or keys on the wheel.

38. A high speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped
A) a maximum of three times.
B) only by the tire manufacturer.
C) an indefinite number of times.

39. K fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will
A) indicate tire tread separation.
B) prevent overinflation.
C) melt at a specified elevated temperature.

40. Debooster valves are used in brake systems primarily to
A) ensure rapid application and release of the brakes.
B) reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure.
C) reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.

41.  Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found
A) on the airplane data plate.
B) in the aircraft operations limitations.
C) in the aircraft manufacturer's service manual.

42.  The repair for an out of tolerance toe in condition of main landing gear wheels determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of
A) shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion.
B) inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of the scissor torque links.
C) placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of the out of tolerance wheel or wheels.

43. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to
A) prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
B) distribute the aircraft weight properly.
C) reduce excessive wear and turbulence.

44. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to
A) retract and extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
B) extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
C) prevent the throttle from being reduced below a safe power setting while the landing gear is retracted.

45. The pressure source for power brakes is
A) the main hydraulic system.
B) the power brake reservoir.
C) a master cylinder.

46. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
A) Limit compression stroke.
B) Hold the strut in place.
C) Maintain correct wheel alignment.

47. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing is cushioned by
A) compression of the air charge.
B) the fluid being forced through a metered opening.
C) compression of the fluid.

48 Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause
A) slow release of brakes.
B) the pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied.
C) fading brakes.

49. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to
A) limit the extension of the torque arm.
B) limit the extension stroke.
C) reduce the rebound effect.

50. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to
A) prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension.
B) provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power.
C) ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.

51. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to
A) relieve pressure to a sensitive component.
B) restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
C) relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction.


52..(Refer to Airframe figure 10.) The trunnion nut on an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of 3Q0 inch-pounds. To reach the nut, a Q-inch straight adapter must be used on an 18-inch torque wrench. How many foot-pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached?
A 24.
B) 28.8.
C) 22.


53..A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-pounds are required?
A) 36.8.
B) 38.
C) 36.6.


54..What condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic pump is operating?
A) Accumulator air pressure low.
B) Inadequate supply of fluid.
C) System relief valve sticking closed.


55..An O ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with
A) a blue stripe or dot.
B) one or more white dots.
C) a white and yellow stripe.


56..A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose. This stripe
A) is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting.
B) identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only.
C) identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and may be suitable for a wide range of applications.


57..A hydraulic system referred to as a 'power pack' system will
A) have an engine driven pump for greater pressure.
B) have all hydraulic power components located in one unit.
C) have a pressurized reservoir.


58..Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple disk type brake assemblies?
A) There are no minimum or maximum disk clearance checks required due to the use of self compensating cylinder assemblies.
B) Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.
C) No parking brake provisions are possible for this type of brake assembly.


59..What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid when no demands are on the system?
A) Pressure relief valve.
B) Shuttle valve.
C) Pressure regulator.


60..Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering device is to
A) align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.
B) engage the nosewheel steering.
C) center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well.


61..How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure?
A) At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather).
B) At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather).
C) At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather).


62..A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a
A) sediment trap.
B) cuno filter.
C) micronic filter.


63..The hydraulic packing seals used in a landing gear shock strut are
A) generally designed to be compatible with more than one type of fluid.
B) kept from direct contact with fluid by teflon or nylon backup rings.
C) used only with a specific type of fluid.


64..Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing valves that
A) allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
B) cannot allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
C) must be bled separately after brake bleeding has been completed.


65..An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a
A) shunt field series wound motor.
B) split field shunt wound motor.
C) split field series wound motor.


66..A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is
A) retarded and gear is not down and locked.
B) advanced and gear is down and locked.
C) retarded and gear is down and locked.


67..Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of
A) incorrect camber.
B) excessive toe out.
C) overinflation.


68..When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to
A) thoroughly lubricate the piston rod.
B) force out any excess fluid.
C) ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles.


69..In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
A) absorb bottoming effect.
B) prevent oil from escaping.
C) serve as a bearing surface.


70..On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by
A) removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge.
B) measuring the length of the strut extension with a certain air pressure in the strut.
C) releasing the air and seeing that the oil is to the level of the filler plug.


70..How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?
71..A) By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection.
B) By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
C) By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release.


72..The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are
A) proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and ground rolls into the wind.
B) short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking, and proper tire inflation.
C) minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long ground rolls.


73..In brake service work, the term 'bleeding brakes' is the process of
A) withdrawing air only from the system.
B) withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system.
C) replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.


74..What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system?
A) The brakes will operate normally.
B) The reservoir will be filled by reverse flow.
C) The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.


75..Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally
A) use independent master cylinder systems.
B) do not use brake system accumulators.
C) use power brake control valves.


76..What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?
A) The brakes would become spongy.
B) The brake travel would become excessive.
C) The brakes would drag.


77…To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact,
A) various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
B) the metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends.
C) the air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction.


78..A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is
A) the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
B) air in the brake hydraulic system.
C) the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak.


79..The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to
A) lock the struts in the DOWN position.
B) retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
C) meter the proper amount of air in the struts.


80…After performing maintenance on an aircraft's landing gear system which may have affected the system's operation, it is usually necessary to
A) conduct a flight test.
B) re-inspect the area after the first flight.
C) make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks.


81..Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
A) To relieve the strain on the wheel retaining nut and axle threads.
B) As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened.
C) To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel bearings by the inflated tire.


82..A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube type tire is a
A) slippage mark.
B) wheel-to-tire balance mark.
C) wheel weight reference mark..


83..If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause?
A) Worn brake lining.
B) Internal leakage in the master cylinder.
C) Deteriorated flexible hoses.


84..Many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not adaptable to mechanical operation?
A) Single disk spot type.
B) Single servo type.
C) Expander tube type.


85..Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed tires be first inflated, fully deflated, and then reinflated to the correct pressure?
A) To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire.
B) To eliminate all the air between the tube and the inside of the tire.
C) To test the entire assembly for leaks.


86..Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to aircraft tires?
1. Low humidity.
Q. Fuel.
3. Oil.
4. Ozone.
5. Helium.
6. Electrical equipment.
7. Hydraulic fluid.
8. Solvents.
A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8.
C) 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8.


87…The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished
A) through automatic bleed valves on individual components during system operation.
B) by operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles.
C) by allowing the system to remain inoperative for several hours.


88..What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors over electric motors?
A) They are considerably quieter in operation.
B) There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled.
C) They work satisfactorily over a wider temperature range.


89..Extrusion of an O ring seal is prevented in a high pressure system by the use of a
A) backup ring on the side of the O ring next to the pressure.
B) U ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure.
C) backup ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure.


90..The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with
A) a straight tube to withstand the shocks and vibration to which it will be subjected.
B) a straight tube to permit proper alignment of the fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through leakage.
C) enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration.


92..If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
A) is acceptable.
B) may distort the flare.
C) may distort the cone.


93..Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?
1. Minimum maintenance requirements.
Q. Lightweight.
3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (Q0 percent loss due to fluid friction).
4. Simple to inspect.
A) 1, Q, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.


94..A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a
A) compound.
B) packing.
C) gasket.


95..The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to
A) maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload the pump.
B) regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating cylinders within the system.
C) prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressure.


96..What is the purpose of using backup rings with O rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500 PSI?
A) Prevent internal and external leakage of all moving parts within a hydraulic system.
B) Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which move in relation to each other.
C) Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and stationary part.


97..What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for 98..simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
A) Four port, closed center valve.
B) Three port, four way valve.
C) Two port, open center valve.


99..Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to
A) relieve system pressure.
B) discharge the preload.
C) drain the reservoir.


100..Pneumatic systems utilize
A) return lines.
B) relief valves.
C) diluter valves.